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'HEBREW TIME VS. ROMAN TIME'

DID THE APOSTLE JOHN USE HEBREW TIME OR ROMAN TIME IN HIS

WRITINGS IN THE NEW TESTAMENT ?

20 August 1999

Believe it or not, this question is a very difficult question to answer for almost everyone that has had a past association with the Worldwide Church of God, or with Herbert W. Armstrong, or with any of his off-shoot organizations, even tho it is a very easy thing to prove to oneself.

Most of those people still continue to teach that the Apostle John somehow used 'Roman Times' in his writings, and Not any of the 'Hebrew Times', so I thought that I would once again remind those people that what they teach on this subject is wrong.

To prove that the W.C.G. and it's off-shoots are teaching falsehoods on this subject is a very simple thing to do, and all it takes is a Bible, and a little math, and most of all common sense.

To begin the study, one first needs to know 'All' of the time frames that the Apostle John used in his writings, so lets go over the time frames that are found in his writings, o.k.?

JOHN 1:39 says it was about "THE TENTH HOUR".

Question:----- What time is the 'Tenth Hour' Roman Time?

Answer: ----- Most scholars say that the Romans started their 24 hour "Day" at midnight,

(the same as we do today) so using their agenda, the 'Tenth Hour' Roman Time would be at 10 o'clock A.M. in the morning, if one counts 10 hours "from" midnight, would it not?.

Question:----- What time then is the 'Tenth Hour' Hebrew Time?

Answer:------- Most scholars will agree that the Hebrew "Day" consisted of 12 hours, and

started at 6 o'clock A.M. in the morning, and ended at 6 o'clock P.M. in the evening, so the

'Tenth Hour' Hebrew Time, would be at 4 o'clock P.M. in the afternoon, if one counts 10 hours "from" 6 o'clock in the morning, would it not?

Question:----- Was John using a Roman Time or a Hebrew Time in John 1:39 ?

Answer:------- The margin in my King James Version of the Bible says that the 'tenth hour' was 2 hours before night, so even the K.J.V. goes along with the fact that John is using the Hebrew Time in his writings in this verse, plus the story flow of Verse 39 fits better into a 'Tenth Hour' (4 P.M) Hebrew Time, more so then a Roman Time of 10 A.M., so I vote that John used a Hebrew Time in John 1:39.

John 4: 6 says it was about 'THE SIXTH HOUR'.

Question:----- What time is the 'Sixth Hour' ?

Answer: ------ Roman Time 'Sixth Hour' is 6 A.M., when counting from midnight.

Question:----- What time is the 'Sixth Hour' Hebrew Time?

Answer: ------ The 'Sixth Hour' Hebrew Time Is 12 Noon, when counting from 6 A.M..

Question:----- Was John using Roman Time or Hebrew Time in John 4:6 ?

Answer:------- In this story, Christ had just finished a journey from Judea to a city called Sychar and was sitting on a well weary from that journey, when a Samaritan woman walked up to the well to draw some water, while the disciples went into the city to buy some food. A conversation between Jesus Christ and the woman took place, and lasted until the disciples returned from buying that food, where the disciples found both of them still talking with one another, etc.

If the 'Roman Timers' will even use just a little common sense here, they will know that Jesus Christ and all of his disciples didn't stumble thru the darkness all night to try to reach that well by 6 A.M. in the morning, and they will know that the disciples of Christ didn't stumble thru the dark trying to reach a city to buy food before 6 A.M in the morning either, (when the market places were not even open at that hour) and they will also know that women don't normally go out at night (or before the sun comes up) to draw water from some deep well, and to talk to strangers etc.

Common sense alone tells me that this scenerio of Jesus Christ and the Samaritan woman etc., took place at the Hebrew 'Sixth Hour' of 12 O'clock Noon, and Not at any Roman time of 6 A.M. in the morning, So I vote that John definitely used a Hebrew Time in John 4:6, and Not A Roman Time in this verse.

AS I SEE IT, JOHN 4:6 IS THE 'ONLY SCRIPTURE' A PERSON NEEDS TO PROVE TO THEMSELVES THAT JOHN DEFINITELY USED THE HEBREW TIME FRAMES IN HIS WRITINGS, BUT FOR THOSE THAT NEED MORE PROOF OF IT, LET'S CONTINUE, SHALL WE?

John 4: 52 says it was at the 'THE SEVENTH HOUR' that the fever left him.

Question:----- What time is the 'Seventh Hour' Roman Time?

Answer:------- The Roman Time 'Seventh Hour' is 7 A.M., when counting from midnight.

Question:----- What time is the 'Seventh Hour' Hebrew Time?

Answer: ------ The 'Seventh Hour' Hebrew Time is 1 P.M., when counting from 6 A.M.

Question:----- Was John using Roman Time or Hebrew Time in John 4:52 ?

Answer:------- In this story, a nobleman (ruler) came to where Christ was, and asked him to heal his son who was deathly sick in Capernaum. The nobleman asked Christ to come to Capernaum to heal his son, but instead of Jesus Christ making the journey himself to heal the son, Christ

simply told him that his son would live. The next day when the nobleman was almost home, (after the long trip back apparently) his servant's came out to meet him and told him that his son had already been healed on the prior day at the 'Seventh Hour'.

The 'Seventh Hour' Hebrew Time is at 1 P.M., (starting from 6 A.M.) and the 'Seventh Hour' Roman Time (starting at midnight) is at 7 A.M. in the morning, so I vote that John definitely used the Hebrew Time in John 4:52, and Not any of the Roman Times, because I don't think that the nobleman would have traveled or stumbled thru-out the night to get to Jesus Christ by 7 o'clock in the morning. The 'Seventh Hour' (1 P.M. Hebrew Time) makes much more sense to me, and fits right in with the story flow of the rest of the scriptures surrounding John 4:52.

John 19:14 says it was about the 'THE SIXTH HOUR'.

Question:------ Again, what time is the 'Sixth Hour' Roman Time?

Answer: ------- The Roman Time 'Sixth Hour' is 6 A.M., when counting from midnight.

Question:------ Again, what time is the 'Sixth Hour' Hebrew Time?

Answer: ------- The 'Sixth Hour' Hebrew Time Is 12 O'Clock Noon, starting from 6 A.M..

Question:------ Was John using Roman Time or Hebrew Time in John 19:14 ?

Answer: ------- We have already earlier seen that John definitely used the Hebrew Times in John 4:6 when he mentioned the other 'Sixth Hour' in his writings, but for all the naysayers out there, lets examine this particular 'Sixth Hour' of John 19:14 a little closer, due to so many of those naysayers still erroneously teaching that Jesus Christ was taken captive on a Tuesday night, (of Nisan 14) and then crucified the following Wednesday morning at 9 A.M..

Question:------ What is going on in John 19:14, and what is the story flow here?

Answer -------- This scripture shows that it was one of the 'preparation days' leading up to the killing of the Passover lamb, and that it was around the 'Sixth Hour'. (12 Noon) It also shows that Pilate is still in the process of judging Jesus, and parading him in front of the mob of mad Jews, at the 'Sixth Hour' of the day. (Or 12 Noon)

Question:------ How do we know that it was '12 o'clock Noon ' ( Hebrew Time) in John 19:14, rather then the Roman Time of 6 A.M. ?

Answer: ------- John 4:6 proves that the 'Sixth Hour' is 12 Noon, but for those that still doubt it, there is another way of proving it. To do so, requires a person to do a little math with John 19:14, and to use a little common sense with it.

The math part requires everyone to 'count backwards' with both the time frames, that's all.

If a person 'counts backwards' using the Roman Time of 6 A.M. in John 19:14, they soon find out that they end up in the Dark Of Night with the '3 previous trials' of Jesus Christ.

John 19:14...... clearly shows all of us, that Jesus Christ is going thru a 'final trial' with Pilate at the 'Sixth Hour' of the day, Or At 12 O'Clock Noon !

Christ has already been thru 3 other prior trials before this 'final trial' shown in John 19:14, so there is no-way that John could have used or meant the Roman Time of 6 A.M. in that scripture, because it would have put the other 3 trials of Christ in the darkness of night, which would be totally impossible in light of the other scriptures on the subject.

Question:------ Name the '3 prior trials' of Jesus Christ.

Answer: ------- The "1st trial" that Jesus Christ went thru, was in front of the 'Whole Sanhedrin Council', and the "2nd trial" was with Pilate the first time, and the "3rd trial" was with King Herod, and the "4th trial" (or final trial) was with Pilate again in John 19:14 etc

.

(The pre-trials with the high priests during the night of his capture are not mentioned here)

Question:------ Where are those scriptures found, that prove that Jesus Christ 'Did Not' go thru the '3 previous trials' during any Night-Time Hours, (or before 6 A.M. in the morning) as most of the christian world out there still believe and falsely teach ?

Answer: ------ Those 3 scriptures are found in Luke 22:66, and Matt.27:1-2, and Mark 15:1.

Those 3 scriptures prove to all of us, that it was 'Morning- time or Day- time' before the

'1st Trial' even got started with the 'Whole Sanhedrin Council', so there is no-way that anyone can say that the above mentioned '4 Trials' of Jesus Christ happened during any Night-Time Hours, or before the morning came, or before the sun came up, or before it became day-light.

Those 3 scriptures brings everyone out of the Darkness Of Night with the Trials of Christ,

and into the Day-Light, do they not?

Simply by 'counting backwards' using any of the Roman Times, and by using those 3 scriptures,

people can very easily prove to themselves that it would have been totally impossible for the Apostle John to have used any of the Roman Times in his writings.

To further prove that the Apostle John used "Only" the Hebrew Times in his writings, (and Not any of the Roman Times in his writings) one simply needs to read the words of John himself in

John 11:9.

John wrote these words of Christ....'Jesus answered, Are There Not 12 Hours In The Day' ?

It was the Apostle John himself who quoted those words of Jesus Christ in John 11:9.

Would John write about Jesus Christ describing a 12 hour Hebrew Day, that he himself didn't use and go by every day? No-Way !

The Apostle John was greatly loved by Christ, so if any of the disciples of Jesus Christ used the Hebrew Time frames in their writings, it would have definitely been John.

All of the other Apostles of Christ used the Hebrew Time frames in all of their writings as well, (including the Apostle Paul) so it only makes sense to me that the Apostle John would do the very same thing in his writings also. Just because John wrote years after the other disciples of Christ wrote, does not in anyway mean that John converted himself over to the Roman way of counting the hours of a Day. Those that think that, better be able to prove it to me thru the scriptures. (So far, No-one has been able to show me the scriptures that do that)

Those that refuse to believe that the Apostle John used the 'Hourly Hebrew Times' in his writings, better be able to explain to me, (thru the use of their Roman Time Frames of course) how that Jesus Christ went thru 4 different trials, in 3 different courtrooms, with 3 different judges etc., ALL 'before' 6 A.M. In The Morning, While Using The

3 Scriptures of Luke 22:66 and Matt. 27:1, and Mark 15:1 With Their Roman Times.

The 'Roman Timers' out there, also need to explain to all of us (thru the scriptures of course) how that they can match up the 'hourly time frame' of Mark 15:25, with the 'hourly time frame' of John 19:14, and end up with the very 'Same Day' of Wednesday Nisan 14.



Lets examine those two scriptures again, shall we?



Mark 15:25 says; 'And it was the "THIRD HOUR", and they crucified him.'

The "THIRD HOUR" in Hebrew Time, is always at 9 o'clock in the morning !

John 19:14 says; 'And it was the preparation of the Passover, and about

"The SIXTH HOUR": and he (Pilate) saith unto the Jews, Behold Your King' !

The "SIXTH HOUR" Hebrew Time is '12 NOON' !

Using Hebrew Times, Jesus Christ is STILL being judged by Pilate around

NOON-TIME in John 19:14 !

It doesn't take a brain surgeon to figure out that one cannot crucify a man at 9 O'clock in the morning, and 'STILL' be judging him for that crucifixion at 12 NOON, and 'STILL CALL IT THE VERY SAME DAY' !

Mark 15:25 shows a "THIRD HOUR" (9 A.M.) crucifiction of Jesus Christ, and John 19:14 shows a "SIXTH HOUR" (Noon Time) Trial of Jesus Christ, so the 'Roman Timers' have a real dilemna with those two scriptures, do they not?

As I said earlier, John 4:6 is positive proof that the "SIXTH HOUR" is indeed at 12 O'Clock Noon.

To further prove that Jesus Christ 'Was Not' taken captive on a Tuesday night, and then crucified the following Wednesday morning at 9 A.M. , one needs to also look at some of the other Apostles writings on the subject as well.

Matt. 27:45 and Mark 15:33 and Luke 23:44 , ALL show that Jesus Christ was hanging on a cross or a stake at the "SIXTH HOUR" also, do they not?

NOW COMES THE 'BIG QUESTION' AND CHALLENGE TO ALL THE 'ROMAN TIMERS' OUT THERE, AND TO ALL THE NAY-SAYERS OUT THERE:

PLEASE EXPLAIN TO ME, HOW THAT JESUS CHRIST CAN BE CRUCIFIED AT THE "THIRD HOUR" OF 9 A.M. IN MARK 15:1, ....... AND BE IN A TRIAL WITH PILATE AT THE "SIXTH HOUR" (12 NOON) IN JOHN 19:14,....... AND BE

HANGING ON SOME STAKE OR CROSS AT THE "SIXTH HOUR" (12 NOON)

IN MATT. 27:45, AND IN MARK 15:33, AND IN LUKE 23:44,....... AND STILL BE CALLED THE VERY "SAME DAY" OF WEDNESDAY NISAN 14 BY ALL OF YOU PEOPLE ???



The people who keep trying to tell the rest of us out here, that the Last Supper Meal was on a Tuesday night, and that Jesus Christ Was Taken Captive From The Garden Of Gethsemane By The Jews On That 'Same Tuesday Night', and Then Crucified The Following Wednesday Morning At 9 A.M. On Nisan 14, Have A Real Problem Here, Do They Not?

HERE'S A FEW MORE QUESTIONS FOR THOSE PEOPLE TO ANSWER FOR ME.



(1) If John Used The Roman Time Of 6 A.M. In John 19:14, Then How Did The 3 Previous Trials Occur At The Same Time, Or Before 6 A.M.?

(2) If John Used The Roman Time Of 6 A.M. In John 19:14, Then How Did The 3 Previous Trials Occur During The Night-time Hours, When Luke 22:66, and Matt. 27:1, and Mark 15:1, 'All' Say That It Was 'Morning Time Or Day Time' Before The 'First Trial' Even Got Underway Or Started By The 71 Members Of The Sanhedrin ?

(3) If John Used The Roman Time Of 6 A.M. In John 19:14, Then How Did Pilate Or King Herod Know Ahead Of Time, Or Before They Went To Sleep The Night Before, That They Had Get Up During The Night Or Before The Sun Came Up, To Hold A 'Night Court' For A Jewish Prisoner, When He (Christ) Was Not Even Captured Until After Midnight By The Jews? Wasn't Pilate And King Herod Fast Asleep At Midnight When The Captivity Of Christ Took Place By The Jews? And Who Was The Brave Fellow Who Rousted A King And A Governor Out Of Their Beds From Midnight To 6 A.M., To Inform Them That They Had To Scurry Down To Their Court Houses Before The Sun Came Up To Hold Some 'Night Courts' For A Bunch Of Mad Jews Who Had No Appointments With Them, Or Who Didn't Use Any Advanced Notices Or Normal Protocols For Any Trials ?

(Keep In Mind, That This Is The Same King Herod That Had John The Baptist's Head Cut Off! Would You Want To Be The One To Awaken This Guy Out Of His Sleep To Inform Him That A Bunch Of Mad Jews Were Outside In The Darkness Demanding An Immediate Trial Of One Of Their Jewish Prisoners ?? Not Me ! I Would Rather Wake Up A Junk Yard Dog ! The Romans Controlled Their Empire and also the Jews 2000 Years Ago, And Not Vice Versa, So Common Sense Prevails Here)

(4) If John Used The Roman Time Of 6 A.M. In John 19:14, Then How Does One Explain Luke 23:12, Which Shows That Pilate And Herod Became Friends During The 'Day Time', While Exchanging Jesus Christ Back And Forth ?

(5) If John Used The Roman Time Of 6 A.M. In John 19:14, Then Who Rounded Up The 71 Members Of The 'Whole Council' (Sanhedrin) From Midnight To 6 A.M. To Inform Them Of A Night-Time Trial, And Why Do People Think That Everyone Involved In The 4 Trials Of Christ Stayed Up All Night To Try Him ? The Regular Meeting Times For The 'Whole Sanhedrin Council' Were At The Time Of The Morning Sacrifices Of

9 A.M., So Why Would They Change That Meeting Time, And Where Is The Proof That They Did, And Where Is The Proof That Everyone Involved In The 4 Trials Of Christ Stayed Up All Night? The Sanhedrin Had Very Strict Rules Regarding Their Meetings, So Where Is Everyones Proof That The Powerful Sanhedrin Court System Threw All Of Their Rules Of Conduct Out The Window To Try Jesus Christ?



The Sanhedrin Had It Written In Those Same Strict Rules, That It Required 2 Days To Condemn A Person To Death, And That They Never Tried Capital Punishment Cases On A Day Before A Feast Day, So Where Is Everyones Proof That They Did Violate Their Own Rules Of Conduct ? If Christ Was Tried By The Sanhedrin On A Wednesday Morning, (As The 'Roman Timers' Keep Trying To Tell Us) Then Wouldn't That Have Violated The Rules Of The Sanhedrin Regarding Capital Punishment Cases ? And Due To The Fact That This Particular Wednesday Was A Day Before The Feast Day Called Passover, Wouldn't They Also Be Violating The Rules That Call For A 2 Day Waiting Period Before A Death Sentence Could Be Pronounced On Christ ?

AS YOU CAN SEE, THERE IS A LOT OF UN-ANSWERED QUESTIONS ON THIS SUBJECT, THAT NEEDS TO BE DISCUSSED BY ALL OF US!

ALSO, I READ OF NO "ILLEGAL TRIALS" PLACED UPON JESUS CHRIST IN ANY OF HIS TRIALS !

From what I read, the 71 members of the Sanhedrin gave Jesus Christ a proper and a legal hearing and a trial. They condemned him to be put to death because they thought that he had violated the teachings of the Torah, as well as their own traditions and customs. After being condemned to death by the Sanhedrin, they took him over to the Governor Pilate, to see if the Romans would do the dirty deed for them.

When Pilate received Jesus, he put him thru a proper and a legal hearing and a trial.

Pilate found him innocent of all the charges brought against him by the Sanhedrin.

Pilate then sends him over to see King Herod, because he finds no fault in him.

When King Herod received Jesus Christ, he also gave him a proper hearing and a trial, and found him innocent of all charges brought against him by the Sanhedrin. Herod then sends him back to Pilate, because he finds no fault in him either.

When Pilate received Jesus Christ the second time, he again gives him a proper hearing and a legal trial, and once again finds him innocent of all the charges brought against him by the Sanhedrin Council.

The screaming mob of Jews are the ones who finally pressured Pilate into crucifying Jesus Christ, and even then, Pilate washes his hands of the whole mess before ordering the crucifiction of Christ, so from what I read about in the scriptures, Jesus Christ 'Was Not' Put Thru Any Kind Of Illegal Trials 2000 Years Ago. (As Some

Out There Still Believe And Teach)

AS YOU CAN SEE, THE 'ROMAN TIMERS' OUT THERE, HAVE SOME REAL SERIOUS PROBLEMS WITH THEIR TEACHINGS, AS WELL AS WITH THEIR COMMON SENSE AND LOGIC ON THIS ISSUE, DO THEY NOT???





The Only Time Frames That Fit Into And Match The Writings Of The Apostle John, And All Of The Other Apostles Writings, Are The 'Hebrew Time Frames' Folks !

When a person finally realizes that the Apostle John 'Did Not Use Roman Times In His Writings', then they will also come to the realization that Jesus Christ was held captive over-night for at least 2 days by both the Jews and the Romans, (and possibly 3 or 4 nights) and they will also have to deal with the fact that the 'Lord's Supper' (Last Supper) Did Not Occur On A Tuesday Night, as they have been taught for so many years by others.

If any of you out there, agree with what I have wrote in this article, then pass this information on to others. If you don't agree with this article, then surely you will be able to answer most all of the questions I proposed to everyone in this article, will you not?

I have did my best to show all of you, that the Apostle John Did Not Use Any Of The Roman Time Frames In Any Of His Writings, As well as showed you that none of the other Apostles used them either. I have also showed you that Jesus Christ Was Not Taken Captive On A Tuesday Night, and then crucified the following morning at 9 A.M., (As is commonly taught thru-out the christian world) so what you do with the information from now on, is your own responsibility!

If any of you would like to try and answer some of the many questions I asked, then simply write or e-mail me.

If I don't hear from you, I will assume that you have no answers!

Sincerely,

GLEN (Wolfhunter) MYERS

2975 Gulf To Bay Blvd. #507

Clearwater, Fla. 33759

E-mail address is < wolfhunter4u2@yahoo.com>







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